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Exam Answers v3.x and v4.0
Options with highlight colours are correct answer
1 At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core
2 Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone
• access
• distribution
• network
• core
• workgroup
• WAN
3 What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
• replacing hubs with switches
• segmenting the network by installing a router
• creating VLANs for each workgroup
• adding additional hubs to the local area network
• replacing routers with LAN switches
• adding bridges to connect different workgroups
4 Where should DNS and email servers be located?
• IDF
• MDF
• HCC
• VCC
• POP
5 VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
• VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
• The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
• A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
• An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
• Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.
6 What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
• patch cables of variable lengths
• horizontal cross-connect cabling
• vertical cross-connect cabling
• parallel cross-connect cabling
7 Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
• throughput
• response time
• workstation speed
• access to resources
• desktop applications
8 Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
• adaptability
• manageability
• operability
• scalability
• stability
9 Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
• Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
• Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
• Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.
10 A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
• access
• data link
• network
• internet
• transport
11 To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
• sustainability
• reliability
• manageability
• adaptability
• functionality
• scalability
12 Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
• redundant paths
• high-level policy enforcement
• packet manipulation
• media transitions
• rapid forwarding of traffic
• no packet filtering
13 Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
• inter-VLAN routing
• Layer 2 filtering
• Layer 3 filtering
• microsegmentation
• bandwidth security
14 Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
• FDDI
• Ethernet
• Wireless
• Token Ring
15 A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
• one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
• multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
• multi-port gigabit switches
• switches running VLANs
• managed smart hubs
16 Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
• hubs
• bridges
• switches
• routers
17 A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
• functionality
• sustainability
• adaptability
• manageability
• scalability
18 When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
• Layer 1
• Layer 2
• Layer 4
• Layer 7
19 Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
• application
• access
• distribution
• network
• core
20 What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
• filtering of core switching errors
• preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
• preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
• maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
• isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks
V4.0
Options with highlight colours are correct answer
1. Which two statements are true about the default operation of STP in a Layer 2 switched environment that has redundant connections between switches? (Choose two.)
• The root switch is the switch with the highest speed ports.
• Decisions on which port to block when two ports have equal cost depend on the port priority and identity.
• All trunking ports are designated and not blocked.
• Root switches have all ports set as root ports.
• Non-root switches each have only one root port.
2. Which two statements describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
• They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
• They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
• Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
• They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
• The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.
3. In which two ways is the information that is contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
• to negotiate a trunk between switches
• to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
• to identify the shortest path to the root bridge
• to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
• to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
4. Which two actions does an RSTP edge port take if it receives a BPDU? (Choose two.)
• immediately loses its edge status
• inhibits the generation of a TCN
• goes immediately to a learning state
• disables itself
• becomes a normal spanning-tree port
5. Refer to the exhibit. All switches in the network have empty MAC tables. STP has been disabled on the switches in the network. How will a broadcast frame that is sent by host PC1 be handled on the network? 
• Switch SW1 will block the broadcast and drop the frame.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. This will generate an endless loop in the network.
• Switch SW1 will forward the broadcast out all switch ports, except the originating port. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to host PC1.
• Switch SW1 will forward the traffic out all switch ports except the originating port as a unicast frame. All hosts in the network will replay with a unicast frame sent to switch SW1.
6. Which two items are true regarding the spanning-tree portfast command? (Choose two.)
• PortFast is Cisco proprietary.
• PortFast can negatively effect DHCP services.
• PortFast is used to more quickly prevent and eliminate bridging loops.
• Enabling PortFast on trunks that connect to other switches improves convergence.
• If an access port is configured with PortFast, it immediately transitions from a blocking to a forwarding state.
7. Refer to the exhibit. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request? 
• Router_1 will drop the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
• Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
• Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
• The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.
8. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
• election of the root bridge
• blocking of the non-designated ports
• selection of the designated trunk port
• determination of the designated port for each segment
9. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
• Configure all the interfaces on the switch as the static root ports.
• Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
• Assign a lower IP address to the switch than that of the other switches in the network.
• Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
10. Refer to the exhibit. The spanning-tree port priority of each interface is at the default setting. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command? 
• Spanning tree blocks Gi 0/1 on S3.
• • Gi 0/2 on S3 transitions to a root port.
• Port priority makes Gi 0/2 on S1 a root port.
• S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.
11. What two features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose two.)
• the max-age timer
• the spanning-tree hold down timer
• the forward delay
• the spanning-tree path cost
• the blocking delay
12. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
• blocking
• Learning
• disabling
• listening
• forwarding
13. Which three statements are accurate regarding RSTP and STP? (Choose three.)
• RSTP uses a faster algorithm to determine root ports.
• RSTP introduced the extended system ID to allow for more than 4096 VLANs.
• Both RSTP and STP use the portfast command to allow ports to immediately transition to forwarding state.
• Like STP PortFast, an RSTP edge port that receives a BPDU loses its edge port status immediately and becomes a normal spanning-tree port.
• Configuration commands to establish primary and secondary root bridges are identical for STP and RSTP.
• Because of the format of the BPDU packet, RSTP is backward compatible with STP.
14. What two elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
• one root bridge per network
• all non-designated ports forwarding
• one root port per non-root bridge
• multiple designated ports per segment
• one designated port per network
15. Which statement or set of paired statements correctly compares STP with RSTP?
• STP and RSTP use the same BPDU format.
• STP specifies backup ports. RSTP has only root ports, alternate ports, and designated ports.
• STP port states are independent of port roles. RSTP ties together the port state and port role.
• STP waits for the network to converge before placing ports into forwarding state. RSTP places alternate ports into forwarding state immediately.
16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output shown? 
Two hosts communicating between ports Fa 0/2 and Fa 0/4 have a cost of 38.
• The priority was statically configured to identify the root.
• STP is disabled on this switch.
• The timers have been altered to reduce convergence time.
17. Which two criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
• bridge priority
• switching speed
• number of ports
• base MAC address
• switch location
• memory size
18. What three link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
• Shared
• end-to-end
• edge-type
• boundary-type
• point-to-many
• point-to-point
19. What Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) role is assigned to the forwarding port elected for every switched Ethernet LAN segment?
• alternate
• backup
• Designated
• root
20. When PVST+ was developed, the Bridge ID was modified to include which information?
• bridge priority
• MAC address
• protocol
• VLAN ID
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