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CCNA 3 - Module 2: Basic Switch Concepts and Configurations


Exam Answers v3.x and v4.0


Options with
highlight colours are correct answer

1 What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth

• bandwidth and hop count
• bandwidth and reliability
• bandwidth, load, and reliablity

2 Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

3 Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
• border router
• nearest neighboring router
• local router
• trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

4 In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
• point-to-point
• point-to-multipoint
• broadcast multiaccess
• nonbroadcast multiaccess

5 What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• HQ will be DR for
• Router A will be DR for
• HQ will be BDR for
• Router A will be DR for
• Remote will be DR for
• Remote will be BDR for

6 Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort
• RouterB(config)# ip route serial 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

• RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network area 0
• RouterB(config)# ip route
• RouterB(config)# ip default-route
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7 Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
• Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
• Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

8 What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
• link-state age intervals
• timer intervals
• router ID number

• link-state update intervals
• neighbor adjacencies

9 RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
• RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
• RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
• RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
• RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

10 What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
• reduction of routing overhead
• increased routing overhead
• faster convergence
• slower convergence
• distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
• isolation of network instability to one area of the network

11 Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network area 1
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network area 0

• RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network area 0
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network
RouterA(config-router)# network
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network area 0

12 Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
• Link-state protocols require careful network design.
• Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
• Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
• Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
• Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.

• Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

13 What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes
• updates sent at regular intervals
• updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
• updates that include complete routing tables

14 Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
• Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
• Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

15 How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
• It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
• It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
• The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
• It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
• It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

16 A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

17 The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the network? (Choose two.)
• R1 will be the DR
• R1 will be the BDR
• R2 will be the DR
• R2 will be the BDR
• R3 will be the DR
• R3 will be the BDR

18 Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
• router# show ospf serial 0
• router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
• router# show ip interface serial 0
• router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

19 Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

20 What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• root router
• backup root router
• domain router
• backup domain router
• designated router
• backup designated router



Options with highlight colours are correct answer

1. When a collision occurs in a network using CSMA/CD, how do hosts with data to transmit respond after the backoff period has expired?
• The hosts return to a listen-before-transmit mode.
• The hosts creating the collision have priority to send data.
• The hosts creating the collision retransmit the last 16 frames.
• The hosts extend their delay period to allow for rapid transmission.

2. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and workstation are administratively configured for full-duplex operation. Which statement accurately reflects the operation of this link?
• No collisions will occur on this link.
• Only one of the devices can transmit at a time.
• The switch will have priority for transmitting data.
• The devices will default back to half duplex if excessive collisions occur.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What action does SW1 take on a frame sent from PC_A to PC_C if the MAC address table of SW1 is empty?
• SW1 drops the frame.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, except port Fa0/1.
• SW1 floods the frame on all ports on the switch, except Fa0/23 and Fa0/1.
• SW1 uses the CDP protocol to synchronize the MAC tables on both switches and then forwards the frame to all ports on SW2.

4. When a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not found in the switching table, what action will be taken by the switch to process the incoming frame?
• The switch will request that the sending node resend the frame.
• The switch will issue an ARP request to confirm that the source exists.
• The switch will map the source MAC address to the port on which it was received.
• The switch ends an acknowledgement frame to the source MAC of this incoming frame.

5. Refer to the exhibit. The switch and the hub have default configurations, and the switch has built its CAM table. Which of the hosts will capture a copy of the frame when workstation A sends a unicast packet to workstation C?
• workstation C
• workstations B and C
• workstations A, B, C, and the interfaces of the router
• workstations B, C, D, E, F, and interfaces of the router

6. Refer to the exhibit. How many collision domains are depicted in the network?
• 1
• 2
• 4
• 6
• 7
• 8

7. Which two statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches are true? (Choose two.)
• Layer 2 switches prevent broadcasts.
• Layer 2 switches have multiple collision domains.
• Layer 2 switches route traffic between different networks.
• Layer 2 switches decrease the number of broadcast domains.
• Layer 2 switches can send traffic based on the destination MAC address.

8. Which command line interface (CLI) mode allows users to configure switch parameters, such as the hostname and password?
• user EXEC mode
• privileged EXEC mode
• global configuration mode
• interface configuration mode

9. A network administrator uses the CLI to enter a command that requires several parameters. The switch responds with “% Incomplete command”. The administrator cannot remember the missing parameters. What can the administrator do to get the parameter information?
• append ? to the last parameter
• append a space and then ? to the last parameter
• use Ctrl-P to show a parameter list.
• use the Tab key to show which options are available

10. Where is the startup configuration stored?
• startup-config.text

11. If a network administrator enters these commands in global configuration mode on a switch, what will be the result?
• Switch1(config-line)# line console 0
• Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
• Switch1(config-line)# login

12. to secure the console port with the password “cisco” to deny access to the console port by specifying 0 lines are available to gain access to line configuration mode by supplying the required password to configure the privilege exec password that will be used for remote access problem?
• incorrect vty lines configured
• incompatible Secure Shell version
• incorrect default gateway address
• vty lines that are configured to allow only Telnet

13. Which two statements are true about EXEC mode passwords? (Choose two.)
• The enable secret password command stores the configured password in plain text.
• The enable secret password command provides better security than the enable password.
• The enable password and enable secret password protect access to privileged EXEC mode.

• The service password-encryption command is required to encrypt the enable secret password. Best practices require both the enable password and enable secret password to be configured and used simultaneously.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows partial output of the show running-config command. The enable password on this switch is “cisco.” What can be determined from the output shown?
• The enable password is encrypted by default.
• An MD5 hashing algorithm was used on all encrypted passwords.
• Any configured line mode passwords will be encrypted in this configuration.
• This line represents most secure privileged EXEC mode password possible.

15. Which statement is true about the command banner login “Authorized personnel Only” issued on a switch?
• The command is entered in privileged EXEC mode.
• The command will cause the message Authorized personnel Only to display before a user logs in.
• The command will generate the error message % Ambiguous command: “banner motd” ” to be displayed.
• The command will cause the message End with the character “%” to be displayed after the command is entered into the switch.

16. What are two ways to make a switch less vulnerable to attacks like MAC address flooding, CDP attacks, and Telnet attacks? (Choose two.)
• Enable CDP on the switch.
• Change passwords regularly.
• Turn off unnecessary services.

• Enable the HTTP server on the switch.
• Use the enable password rather than the enable secret password.

17. Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
• The three configurable violation modes all log violations via SNMP.
• Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
• The three configurable violation modes all require user intervention to re-enable ports.
• After entering the sticky parameter, only MAC addresses subsequently learned are converted to secure MAC addresses.
• If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.

18. Refer to the exhibit. What happens when Host 1 attempts to send data?
• Frames from Host 1 cause the interface to shut down.
• Frames from Host 1 are dropped and no log message is sent.
• Frames from Host 1 create a MAC address entry in the running-config.
• Frames from Host 1 will remove all MAC address entries in the address table.

19. What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

• The SSH client on the switch is enabled.
• Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.
• A username/password combination is no longer needed to establish a secure remote connection to the switch.
• The switch requires remote connections via proprietary client software.

20. Refer to the exhibit. A user on PC1 experiences a delay when accessing applications on the server. What two statements about latency are true? (Choose two.)
• Each hop in the path adds delay to the overall latency.
• Placing the bits on the wire at PC1 is propagation delay.
• Total latency depends solely on the number of devices in the path.
• The NIC delay at points A and F contributes to the overall latency.
• The time it takes for an electrical signal to transit the segment from point C to point D is the cause for the propagation delay.
• Because optimized routing algorithms are faster than switching algorithms, routers R1 and R2 are expected to add less latency than switches SW1 and SW2.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which hosts will receive a broadcast frame sent from Host A?
• hosts A and B
• hosts D and E
• hosts A, B, and C
• hosts A, B, C, D, and E
• hosts A, B, C, D, E, and F

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